Addendum to the Thoughts Around the LGBT Issue

This addendum to the LGBT discussion became a separate blog, because its topic also relates to the family life of the straight people.

An indispensable component of family life is sex. In my discussion so far, based on a holistic view of the Quran (part 3 of this series) and hadith (part 4 of this series), I expressed that Islam is not essentially against LGBT people, as long as they are living within the same ethical rules binding the straight people and the society in general. Then, a question arises as a natural consequence of this result: How about the requirements of their sex life?

This question is broadly answered through the previous two episodes, but still, there is one detail that needs clarification. Let's put it more explicitly and straight forward. Is anal sex, be it in the families of straight people or LGBT people, allowed in Islam or not?

Below, I am going to give you different sides of the answer, and express my personal conclusion. But in the end, it is your call to make your own judgment. God knows best.

The widely accepted answer to this question about anal sex is NO. That is, widely accepted view about anal sex is that it is NOT allowed in Islam. And this view almost entirely depends on the hadiths on the issue:

"Whoever has intercourse with a menstruating woman, or with a woman in her rear, or who goes to a fortuneteller and believes what he says, he has disbelieved in that which was revealed to Muhammad." (Grade: good, Ibn Majah, Purification and its Sunnah, 639)

"Allah will not look at a man who has intercourse with his wife in her buttocks." (Grade: sahih, Ibn Majah, Marriage, 1998) 

"The Messenger of Allah (pbuh) said: “Allah is not too shy to tell the truth,” three times. “Do not have intercourse with women in their buttocks.”" (Grade: sahih, Ibn Majah, Marriage, 1999) 

"The Prophet pbuh said: He who has intercourse with his wife through her anus is accursed." (Grade: Good, Abu Davud, Marriage, 2162)

Ibn Abbas narrated that The Messenger of Allah said:“Allah will not look at a man who enters a man or a woman in the behind.” (Grade: good, Tirmidhi, Suckling, 1165)

These narrations are also presented along with a Quranic verse to reach a decision against anal sex. This verse is from chapter Al-Baqara, and is given below. Note that the phrases italicized and underlined are done so to be analyzed further later.

Say "... And when they have purified themselves, then come to them from where Allah has ordained for you. Indeed, Allah loves those who are constantly repentant and loves those who purify themselves." Your wives are a place of sowing of seed for you, so come to your place of cultivation however you wish and put forth [righteousness] for yourselves. And fear Allah and know that you will meet Him. And give good tidings to the believers. (2/222-223)

These hadiths and the verses form the backbone of the position against anal sex. Such opposition resounds with the traditional antagonism against the LGBT people. However, as I presented in the previous episodes of this series, this antagonism is not founded in the core Islamic teachings, if you look critically and holistically. So, there must be another way to see things about anal sex, too. Therefore, from this point on, I would like to give an alternative look at the issue.

First, let's remember from the part 3 of this series that the Quran does not stand against the LGBT people rigidly and unconditionally. So, those who want to live a life of faith and establish a family in chastity are not outcast by the Quran.

Second, from our study of the hadiths relevant to the LGBT issue, it was seen that the prophet did not display animosity to a person only because they have non-traditional gender traits.

From these two conclusions, we can naturally and rationally expect that anal sex must have a position of its own within the realm of the licit. The same must be true among straight couples, too. But when we look at the above hadiths and the verse, it seems that anal sex is unconditionally banned. Or is it?

In order for something to be banned, or to become haraam, it must be clearly forbidden in the Quran. You can verify this information by looking at the Quranic references of all major sins in Islam. If something is not explicitly mentioned in the Quran but is banned or suppressed by the prophet, it acquires a conditional status, such as the situation of music and arts. So, let's see if the above mentioned verse is against anal sex explicitly.

To start with, the above translation by Sahih International actually contains a few interpretations. If you were to minimize those, you would get the following:

Say "...Once they have become pure, approach them in a way God has directed you.” God loves the repentant, and He loves those who keep clean.” Your women are tilth for you; so approach your tilth however you like, and send ahead for yourselves. And fear God, and know that you will meet Him. And give good news to the believers. (2/222-223)

The underlined verb in the first translation, ordained, is a very strong verb that gives the image that "God is ordering men to do exclusively vaginal sex." However, when you look at throughout the Quran, God's orders or His borders are expressed as "uhillalakum = made lawful for you", "hurrima = made unlawful for you", or "kutibe alaykum = written for you". The original verb in 2/222, "amara" is used in the Quran in a few different meanings, (except one) non of which contains a certain or explicit order or ban. Let's see these meanings.

One meaning is seen when God highlights or disapproves certain qualities, hence a general notion, not a certain act. This meaning, although translated as "to order or to ordain", is more like "to direct, to orient". If you ask how I am coming to this conclusion, the answer is that otherwise, the obligations in Islam would be much more and detailed than it is now. So, even the scholars are applying these verses through the meaning I gave, although they are translating it as if a certain command. For example, see 20/132, 16/90, 3/104, 7/28, 44/5, 31/17, 6/163, 27/91-92, 40/66, 11/112. Another meaning is "affair/state/work", and again is never linked to a clear, well-defined act for humans. For example, see 17/85, 18/10, 3/109, 2/210, 8/44, 22/76, 57/5, 35/4, 31/22, 3/47, 43/79, 33/38, 16/77, 11/40, 23/27, 82/19, 44/4, 3/128, 3/154, 36/82.

Let's see the single case in the Quran when the verb amara is used in context of a clear act for a human. The verb is used in the noun form at the end of the verse, and is italicized below:

"... So when Zayd had no longer any need for her, We married her to you in order that there not be upon the believers any discomfort concerning the wives of their adopted sons when they no longer have need of them. And ever is the command of Allah accomplished." (33/37)

There are two things to see here. One, the act and the actors are clearly visible without a doubt. Second, the verb amara, although used in this explicit context, in fact is mentioned as a general notion. That is, the short conclusive sentence at the end of the verse is the lesson from what is told before. That lesson is either 1- when the mentioned work is done, the tendency engendered by God in the soul of the prophet will have been accomplished, 2- when God sets an orientation, it is realized in the manifest world for sure. You can contrast these meanings with an exact order as expressed in another verse: Verily, when He intends a thing, His Command is, "be", and it is! (36/82). So, we can say that even this most clear case about amara also qualifies for the two meanings given above, i.e. orientation or state/work/affair.

The conclusion from the analysis of the usage of the verb amara in the Quran is that it does not link to a certain act to be done or to be avoided. Returning to the verse in the chapter Al-Baqarah (2/222), this conclusion is the reason why in the second translation, amara is translated as "God has directed" instead of "God has ordained". You may ask what the difference is. It is huge.

How do you tell how God directs you, if there is no clear explanation? You look at your feelings. So, when with your spouse, how do you know where to visit? You look at your feelings. If you doubt this conclusion, read the very following verse:

Your women are tilth for you; so approach your tilth however you like,... (2/223)

In order to warrant a pleasurable experience for both partners in the act, the selected verb (ataa = come) implies that the coming must be easy. Again to strengthen the notion of pleasure and hygiene for both partners, the remainder of the verse admonishes to pay attention to prerequisites:

"... and send ahead for yourselves. And fear God, and know that you will meet Him. And give good news to the believers." (2/223)

The same notion of uncertainty that we saw with the verb amara is also visible in the word that precedes this verb. The verse tells to embrace A way (hayth), not THE way (al hayth). And in order to know that way, we are told to look at where God directs us. And that direction is left uncertain, as we discussed above.

If we look at the third underlined word, "harth = place of sowing/cultivation", this translation, in fact, is not a wrong one, but can be used to refer to opposing meanings of the verse. Those who use it to ban anal sex claim that God clearly confines the sexual act to vagina by virtue of reference to cultivation. Some among these scholars, based on that interpretation, even proceed to ban certain types of oral sex. However, those who use the same word to allow anal sex say that it implies a place to be watered, and they say that the rest of the verse approves this meaning by telling to "approach ... however you like".

Both of these interpretations have their own merits, but we can add to this discussion a few more points. First, women are not just baby makers, and sex is not just about reproduction. So, if you are using sex for reproductive purposes, then you can go with the first meaning of harth, but if you are using sex for non-reproductive purposes, you can go with the other meaning.

Second point, the essential needs of the believers who have LGBT traits cannot be addressed if we confine ourselves to the first interpretation, and this contradicts the general position of the Quran about the topic.

Third, in the Quran, there are places where the vagina is explicitly mentioned (66/12, 21/91), i.e. in the cases of Elizabeth (wife of Zachariah pbuh) and Mary (mother of Jesus pbuh). If there is a ban or a clear order, we would expect God to do so without going into metaphors or analogies. Given that a metaphor is used, instead of the word itself, then we can rightfully ask why we are obliged to limit ourselves to the first interpretation of harth (place of cultivation) and not consider different interpretations of that metaphor.

To further our discussion, it is important to remember the concept of "functionality", which is discussed in depth in a different blog you can reach here. For the sake of completeness, I want to briefly touch upon that issue here, too. When we read the verses 2/222-223,  we see that women are held analog to a tilth. This is a clear case of analogy, where the notion of functionality is in the forefront for two reasons. One, the occasion of the revelation for this verse is as follows:

“The Jews used to say that if a man has intercourse with a woman in her vagina from the back, the child would have a squint. Then Allah, Glorious is He, revealed: 'Your wives are a tilth for you, so go to your tilth, when or how you will.' ” (Grade: sahih, Ibn Majah, Marriage, 2000)

In the light of this hadith and through the notion of functionality, we can see a notion of reproduction. Accordingly, the meaning of the verse is an instruction to men not to worry about superstitions on vaginal sex. That is, in the context of its revelation, these Quranic verses have nothing to say about anal sex, for or against.

Second, although there are occasions of revelation (historical context) about the verses of the Quran, the meanings therein are not confined to those occasions, if the content is not explicit and definitive, such as in the ban of intoxicants or in the ordering of fasting in Ramadan. This is exactly what we see here. Yes, there is an occasion of revelation, but it is irrelevant to anal sex. And yes, the content has implicit references that call for interpretation based on functionality. Then, let's think what other meanings or connotations "a tilth" can have.

In order to gather some equipments to help us in our quest, let's see some other similar examples of the implementation of Quranic verses in real life. For example, in the case of polygamy, although the relevant verse (4/3) explicitly builds on the grounds of taking care of the orphans, neither the Prophet himself and his companions nor the religious scholars restrict polygamy to such a context. Rather, they build an expansion on top of the notion of functionality. That is, the imperative form of the verb in the relevant verse, juxtaposed with a condition, tells that in such a case, it becomes a must, but otherwise, there is no ban or obligation, hence the expansion in the implementation.

Similarly, in a verse telling the believers to marry the single ones, the imperative form of the verb is used: 

"And marry the unmarried among you and the righteous among your male slaves and female slaves. If they should be poor, Allah will enrich them from His bounty, and Allah is all-Encompassing and Knowing." (24/32)

Do you ever see the scholars claiming that it is an order of God to marry? Rather, they talk about the functionality of marriage in protecting one's self from the prohibitions, and they recommend, urge people to get married, but they never force people thereof, despite the imperative form in the verse. In not doing so, they have supporting arguments, which I am not going to discuss here, but the bottom line is that something does not become an order of God or a ban simply because of a verb in a verse. There are several conditions for that to happen. And this is not something that the scholars have invented, either. Rather, if you read the Quran with a critical mind and some basic knowledge of Arabic and Quranic history, this is what anyone would conclude naturally.

Another example is about not approaching the women during their periods:

They will question thee concerning the menstruation. Say: 'It is hurt; so go apart from women during the monthly course, and do not approach them till they are clean. When they have cleansed themselves, then come unto them as God has commanded you.' Truly, God loves those who repent, and He loves those who cleanse themselves. (2/222)

Again here, when telling not to approach the women during their periods, the imperative form of the verb is used. However, when we look at the practice of the prophet Muhammad himself, we see that he used to approach his wives according to their sensitivities but always abstaining from intercourse until completion of the menstruation (e.g. Tirmidhi, 132). The clear imperative in the verse and the application of the messenger of God seem to contradict here! Or do they? This apparent discrepancy is easily resolved if you remember that something does not become an order or a ban unless it satisfies various conditions. Otherwise, it attains a conditional status, by which the application may vary due to individual differences among people and surrounding conditions.

With these in mind, let go on with our analysis. If you lived in the 7th century Arabian peninsula, you would be living in conditions of extreme heat and shortage of water. So, if you had a tilth that is providing shade and giving produce, it would be extremely precious. You would pay so much attention when dealing with it. At the same time, spending time there would be so comforting for you. Even the thought of having it would be a factor of serenity in that land of deserts. In short, a tilth would mean much more than getting produce.

By the same token, given that the functionality of women to men is much more than giving children only, and given that functionality of sex is much broader than reproduction, the analogy of the Quran can be expanded in meaning in a way to include and regulate anal sex.

Furthermore, not accepting this broad notion and insisting on the idea that these verses are exclusively relating to the reproductive traits, then, based on the same grounds, one can ban birth control on religious grounds, since it goes against the idea of being a tilth. One can even claim that sex is haraam if you are not intending to make children. Even, marrying a woman who is known to be barren would become questionable, since she is not a tilth.

Therefore, I would suggest that the word harth can and must be translated in inclusive ways, not exclusive. And, when we consider the different meanings in the present context, we see that they all contribute to make a more complete picture on the issue.

So, in short, if we consider the discussion so far about the Quranic references to the anal sex, we see that it doesn't make sense to claim that God unconditionally and/or explicitly bans anal sex. Rather, it can be claimed that there are regulations in the relevant verses (2/222-223) for all forms of sex. And so, the strict position against it in the hadiths must have a conditional status. Now let's study this aspect of the matter.

First, let me clarify what I mean by conditional status through some examples. If you look at the hadiths about those who make pictures and statues, you see that they are clearly banned (e.g. Sahih Bukhari 5954, 5657), although there are no clear Quranic verses against them. So, if we go with this result, the robotics and genetics studies today must be abolished. Or if you look at the travel rights of women, you see a clear restriction (Tirmidhi, Suckling, 1169), and we would have to reset the society. But these are not happening. Why not? Because these hadiths are put in a context. So, whenever those same conditions apply, the same jurisdictions become valid. But otherwise, it is the duty of the knowledgeable ones to come to a conclusion or recommendation.

For a more detailed analysis of this topic, you can read a previous blog on the importance of historical context and human limitations in interpreting the hadiths.

Coming back to our topic, if there is no clear ban against anal sex in the Quran, but it is severely disapproved by the Messenger of God pbuh, there must be reasons behind it. Whenever those conditions are valid, then the same disapproval becomes valid; but otherwise, it must be acceptable. Then, what could those conditions be?

First, as indicated in the part 4 of this series, the messenger of God was very sensitive for his people, and tried his best to keep them away from the ways of people destructed by God in the past. So, this sensitivity could have played a role in his words.

Second, at the time of the prophet, women rights were virtually none. Although with his coming, the status of women was enhanced incomparably, kind treatment by their husbands and women's sexual needs were still issues to be addressed. Therefore, many hadiths were uttered by the prophet to warn men against the rights of women on them. Talking about anal sex, due to the physiological nature of the rectum, more attention and sensitivity is required to ensure a healthy and pleasurable experience for both sides. Such sensitivity was unlikely to be found among the men at the time. But still, it was practiced by some, and protecting women from unwanted and/or unsatisfactory sex was an important issue for the prophet.

Third, anal sex requires further attention to hygiene compared to the vaginal sex. The available technological means at the time were simply not enough to ensure this.

Fourth, reproduction of the Muslim community was important, and anal sex did not serve to that end.

In order to read hadiths related to these four reasons, you can look at the part 4 of this series and also read the following hadiths among others: Sahih Bukhari, Marriage, 5187; Ibn Majah, Marriage, 2003; farewell sermon.

In conclusion, as long as it is done according to hygiene conditions and practiced in a way to please both spouses, anal sex should be within the realm of the licit. Otherwise, why would God create nerve ends around the rectum area in both men and women, which enable pleasure?

In the end, given all of the discussion above, it is your call to decide what to do. Allah knows best.